100% Pass Quiz PRMIA - 8011 Updated Test Dumps
100% Pass Quiz PRMIA - 8011 Updated Test Dumps
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Tags: Test 8011 Dumps, Valid 8011 Test Prep, Free 8011 Vce Dumps, 8011 Pdf Exam Dump, 8011 Pass Rate
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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q98-Q103):
NEW QUESTION # 98
If an institution has $1000 in assets, and $800 in liabilities, what is the economic capital required to avoid insolvency at a 99% level of confidence? The VaR in respect of the assets at 99% confidence over a one year period is $100.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
The economic capital required to avoid insolvency is just the asset VaR, ie $100. This means that if the worst case losses are realized, the institution would need to have a buffer equivalent to those losses which in this case will be $100, and this buffer is the economic capital.
The actual value of liabilities is not relevant as they are considered 'riskless' from the institution's point of view, ie they will be taken at full value. In this particular case, the institution has $200 in capital which is more than the economic capital required.
Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 99
Under the internal ratings based approach for risk weighted assets, for which of the following parameters must each institution make internal estimates (as opposed to relying upon values determined by a national supervisor):
- A. Effective maturity
- B. Probability of default
- C. Loss given default
- D. Exposure at default
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 100
The probability of default of a security during the first year after issuance is 3%, that during the second and third years is 4%, and during the fourth year is 5%. What is the probability that it would not have defaulted at the end of four years from now?
- A. 12.00%
- B. 88.53%
- C. 84.93%
- D. 88.00%
Answer: C
Explanation:
The probability that the security would not default in the next 4 years is equal to the probability of survival at the end of the four years. In other words, =(1 - 3%)*(1 - 4%)*(1 - 4%)*(1 - 5%) = 84.93%. Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following statements are true in relation to Historical Simulation VaR?
I. Historical Simulation VaR assumes returns are normally distributed but have fat tails II. It uses full revaluation, as opposed to delta or delta-gamma approximations III. A correlation matrix is constructed using historical scenarios IV. It particularly suits new products that may not have a long time series of historical data available
- A. I and IV
- B. II
- C. All of the above
- D. II and III
Answer: B
Explanation:
Historical Simulation VaR is conceptually very straightforward: actual prices as seen during the observation period (1 year, 2 years, or other) become the 'scenarios' forming the basis of the valuation of the portfolio. For each scenario, full revaluation is performed, and a P&L data set becomes available from which the desired loss quantile can be extracted.
Historical simulation is based upon actually seen prices over a selected historical period, therefore no distributional assumptions are required. The data is what the data is, and is the distribution. Statement I is therefore not correct.
It uses full revaluation for each historical scenario, therefore statement II is correct.
Since the prices are taken from actual historical observations, a correlation matrix is not required at all.
Statement III is therefore incorrect (it would be true for Monte Carlo and parametric Var).
Historical simulation VaR suffers from the limitation that if enough representative data points are no available during the historical observation period from which the scenarios are drawn, the results would be inaccurate.
This is likely to be the case for new products. Therefore Statement IV is incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 102
A bank holds a portfolio of corporate bonds. Corporate bond spreads widen, resulting in a loss of value for the portfolio. This loss arises due to:
- A. Market risk
- B. Counterparty risk
- C. Credit risk
- D. Liquidity risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
The difference between the yields on corporate bonds and the risk free rate is called the corporate bond spread. Widening of the spread means that corporate bonds yield more, and their yield curve shifts upwards, driving down bond prices. The increase in the spread is a consequence of the market risk from holding these interest rate instruments, which is a part of market risk. If the reduction in the value of the portfolio were to be caused by a change in the credit rating of the bonds held, it would have been a loss arising due to credit risk.
Counterparty risk and liquidity risk are not relevant for this question. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 103
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An important tool in this ability to reduce risk is 8011 a deep understanding of the vernacular of a programming language—this can save much effort, i.e, Because gaps show that a price has jumped, they may represent 8011 Pass Rate some significant change in what is happening with the stock and present a trading opportunity.
8011 Test Dumps: Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam - 8011 Actual Exam Questions
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